Time: Fri Oct 03 18:54:04 1997
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Date: Fri, 03 Oct 1997 18:48:53 -0700
To: (Recipient list suppressed)
From: Paul Andrew Mitchell [address in tool bar]
Subject: SLF: The Municipal Revenue Code [corrected]
Dear Friends,
This is a rather elaborate summary of
our progress to date in decoding the
Internal Revenue Code.
Please forward freely and widely.
Sincerely yours,
/s/ Paul Mitchell
http://supremelaw.com
>Date: Fri, 03 Oct 1997 18:43:14 -0700
>To: Karl Kleinpaste <karl@jprc.com>
>From: Paul Andrew Mitchell [address in toolbar]
>Subject: The Municipal Revenue Code [corrected]
>Cc: pmitch@primenet.com
>
>
>>I take it, then, that your argument is that the Internal Revenue Code
>>is not enacted, and therefore subtitle F has not gone into effect, and
>>therefore the Secretary of the Treasury's creation of the IRS is
therefore
>>invalid?
>>^H
>>
>>If so, again the basis for this argument has been rejected by the courts.
>>The ruling in _Young vs. IRS et al_ (1984, again another plaintiff-sues-IRS
>>case), states in part
>>
>> Although Congress did not pass the Code as a title, it did
>> enact the Internal Revenue Code as a separate Code,
>> see Act of August 16, 1954, 68A Stat. 1, which was then
>> denominated as Title 26 by the House Judiciary Committee pursuant to
>> 1 U.S.C. s 202(a).
>
>
>Okay, I see where one of the problems is:
>
>(setting aside ALL of the problems I have discussed previously):
>
>#1: the case admits that Title 26 has not been enacted as a title;
>
>#2: they are playing with words by saying that IRC is
> a "Code" and, therefore, it can be cited as 26 U.S.C. (wrong);
>
>#3: they have not dealt with 7851(a)(6)(A), particularly
> as regards the meaning of "this title", which is
> clearly ambiguous in this all-important context.
>
>
>Please note that the Speaker of the House has admitted,
>in the Federal Register, that Title 26 has NOT been
>enacted into positive law; therefore, it is NOT
>conclusive evidence of the laws in question. We must
>look to the Statutes at Large to find conclusive
>evidence of the law(s) in question. By convention,
>we use the term IRC to embrace all enacted Statutes
>at Large which comprise the internal revenue laws.
>
>Remember, we are attacking the IRC and 26 U.S.C. for being
>void for vagueness. There are hundreds of reasons why
>these statutes are void for vagueness, the most important
>of which is their deliberate vagueness with respect to their
>territorial application within the federal zone. The term
>"this title" is very consistently used in Title 28 to refer
>to a Title of the United States Code. The term "Code" and
>the term "Title" are not one and the same. Some people
>have argued that "this title" in 7851 refers to the name,
>or commonplace description of the Act(s) in question.
>
>I argue that the usage in Title 28 controls, and that
>usage refers to an enacted Title of the United States Code.
>These two interpretations are obviously discrepant, and
>this understandable disagreement satisfies the rule that
>laws should be clear enough to nullify laws over which
>men of common intelligence must guess as to their meaning,
>and differ as to their application.
>
>This debate has raged for years now, and I maintain that
>the territorial application of the IRC is municipal, per force,
>if nothing else due to the failed ratification of the 16th:
>there are NO APPORTIONMENT STATUTES anywhere in the IRC,
>and this is definitely NOT the only reason why it is a
>municipal code (small "c").
>
>The bottom line is that the absence of clear liability statutes
> -- which do exist in the case of alcohol, tobacco, firearms,
>and petroleum -- means that the entire IRC is "private law",
>which is enforceable in equity; when you hire into federal
>employment, they treat the entire IRC as a contract in equity,
>even if you are working and living within one of the several states.
>
>That is the main reason why proving federal employment,
>via a valid and duly executed Appointment Affidavit,
>IS ABSOLUTELY CRUCIAL TO PROVING THAT THE PUBLIC SALARY
>TAX ACT CAN BE ENFORCED UPON AN "EMPLOYEE" [sic] -- BUT ONLY
>IN EQUITY. Ask yourself this: can the federal government
>FORCE one of their employees to complete a W-4? I say no,
>because the U.S. Constitution protects federal employees too!
>
>Notice that Clarke has NOT attempted to prove that YOU are
>a federal employee; THIS IS VERY IMPORTANT IN YOUR CASE,
>because they MUST establish that a Citizen of Pennsylvania
>is necessarily SUBJECT TO the rules which govern federal
>employees, and you are OBVIOUSLY NOT one of them!! Nor
>has Clarke even attempt to imply, or create any presumption,
>that you are a federal employee, by putting a SSN into
>evidence.
>
>Now, THERE is the crux of the matter, because this whole
>debate hinges on the real INTENT of the income tax,
>which is to skim money back INTO the "treasury" that
>would otherwise be kept by federal employees who are
>receiving it directly FROM the "treasury." If you want,
>I can provide you with lots of reasons why the Public
>Salary Tax Act is unconstitutional, because its real
>intent is fraudulent: the skimming is being done for
>the benefit of foreign banks and their principals.
>
>The money is being collected by IRS [sic] and then
>laundered via Trust #62 into the hands of foreign
>(read "alien") bankers and their families, mostly
>European. Howard Freeman has proven this, by showing
>what really happened when the federal government
>went bankrupt, secretly, in 1933. So, this whole issue
>of Code v. Title v. Act v. IRC v. 26 U.S.C. actually
>shrouds the REAL INTENT: the income tax "laws" [sic]
>are a deceptive elaboration of a kick-back scheme
>which was imposed upon all federal employees in 1939,
>via the Public Salary Tax Act, and the true territorial
>extent of the law, as regards non-federal employees,
>is the federal zone. The admission by Rep. Barbara
>Kennelly makes that shockingly and abundantly clear:
>"State" embraces ONLY the named territories and
>possessions of the United States at IRC 3121(e),
>AND NOT THE SEVERAL STATES OF THE UNION e.g. Pennsylvania.
>
>What we are doing our very best to demonstrate with our
>argument in 7851(a)(6)(A) is to show this statute
>as just one, albeit excellent, case in point: there ARE
>legitimate disagreements among men of common intelligence as to
>the true meaning and intent of key terms like "this title."
>The existence of these legitimate disagreements is proof,
>positive, that the statute(s) in question are void for
>vagueness. But, 7851 is not the ONLY such statute;
>the whole thing is unconstitutional for violating
>the Sixth Amendment, because territorial application
>is the sine qua non of any good legislation.
>
>The IRC is a set of municipal laws, which have no apportionment
>provisions, because the federal zone is exempt from
>such provisions, pursuant to Downes v. Bidwell. Now you
>know why we have also attacked Downes v. Bidwell: direct
>taxes were intended to be spread across the entire nation,
>on a "per capita" basis. A graduated, progressive, and
>non-apportioned tax on compensation is a blatant
>violation of 1:2:3 and 1:9:4. It is socialism; it is
>the Communist Manifesto. It is null and void, ab initio,
>inside the several states. See the Guarantee Clause for
>the final, pivotal proof. If they have any shred of
>authority for treating the two zones differently, it is
>there, in the Guarantee Clause and NOT in Downes v.
>Bidwell. The latter is just a stupid, highly
>controversial 5-4 decision of the Supreme Court;
>the Guarantee Clause is SUPREME LAW, and you threw
>the whole debate into its proper perspective by claiming,
>Rightly, to be a Citizen of Pennsylvania state who was
>NOT also a federal citizen, by Right of Election. This
>means that they cannot touch you with their municipal
>law(s), any more than Arizona state can touch you with
>its municipal laws, any more than Pennsylvania state
>can touch ME with its municipal laws!!!!!!
>
>So, when push really comes to shove, you will see that
>certain "officials" like Senator Barbara Boxer, have
>admitted, in public, that the tax is totally voluntary.
>If you want, we can enter all the pleadings in People v.
>Boxer into your case; I personally think we should!!
>They are about ready to be loaded into SLL.
>
>When you sign the W-4, you are authorizing withholding
>according to published schedules, and that W-4 authorizes
>the paymaster to be a withholding agent [sic]. This withholding
>agent then becomes the liable party, because s/he is holding
>money which belongs to the United States; until that money
>is paid, the withholding agent is liable, and can be
>prosecuted for tax evasion for NOT paying it. It is really
>all that simple. Also, when you sign the W-4 and/or when
>you complete a Form 1040, you are consenting to be treated
>as a "taxpayer" meaning that you are agreeing to be governed
>by all the private law which is enacted for the Municipal
>Revenue Code.
>
>"Internal" means "municipal". References available upon request.
>The pertinent citations are all assembled into the electronic
>seventh edition of "The Federal Zone: Cracking the Code of
>Internal Revenue." When you hear "code" think "Morse Code"!!!
>
>That Morse Code has now been cracked, and all the king's
>men cannot put the Code back together again, because the
>deceptions are now established, proven, and unrebuttable.
>Deception is fraud.
>
>I rest my case.
>
>/s/ Paul Mitchell
>http://supremelaw.com
===========================================================================
Paul Andrew Mitchell, Sui Juris : Counselor at Law, federal witness 01
B.A.: Political Science, UCLA; M.S.: Public Administration, U.C.Irvine 02
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_____________________________________: Law is authority in written words 09
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