Posted by Dennis on July 16, 1997 at 22:49:51:
In Black's Law Dictionary - 6th Ed. - under "Government de facto" & "Government de jure", one can read of the some of the differences. Notably, the government de jure is the "government of right; the true and lawful government".
What intrigues me, however, is found under the gvt. de facto: "A government actually exercising power and control, as opposed to the true and lawful government; a government not established according to the constitution of the nation, or not lawfully entitled to recognition or supremacy, but which has nevertheless supplanted or displaced the government de jure. A government deemed unlawful, or deemed wrongful or unjust, which, nevertheless, receives presently habitual obedience from the bulk of the community."
"There are several degrees of what is called "de facto government". Such a government, in its highest degree, assumes a character very closely resembling that of a lawful government..."
But *then*, one reads that:
"The distinguishing characteristic of such a government is that adherents to it in war against the government de jure do not incur the penalties of treason; and, under certain limitations, obligations assumed by it in behalf of the country or otherwise will, in general, be respected by the government de jure when restored.
Question - Obviously, then, de jure governments have been restored in the past. Where? And more importantly - HOW??
Ideas? Is the suit in Billings (Montana) related to this, Paul?
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